ICSE History and Civics Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 10

ICSE History and Civics Previous Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 10

General Instructions :

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of five questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

PART – 1 [30 MARKS]
Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1.
(a) Name the bill that cannot originate in the Rajya Sabha. [1]
(b) What is meant by the term ‘quorum’? [1]
(c) What is the maximum gap allowed between the two Parliamentary sessions ? [1]
(d) Who administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers ? [1]
(e) What is an Ordinance? [1]
(f) State any one reason why the President is elected indirectly. [1]
(g) State any one administrative function of the Cabinet. [1]
(h) Name any two writs issued by the Supreme Court. [1]
(i) Name the highest criminal court in a district. [1]
(j) What is meant by Lok Adalats ? [1]
Answers :
(a) Money Bill.
(b) A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha before a meeting is allowed to begin. One tenth of the total members of the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha must be present at the beginning of a sitting of the House, including the Presiding Officer.
(c) Six months.
(d) President.
(e) An Ordinance is a Presidential decree having authority of law.
(f) The President is the Chief Executive in India. He is elected indirectly because : He, being a constitutional head, ought to be elected indirectly as directly elected member cannot become a Constitutional head.
(g) The whole administration of the state is run by the Cabinet.
(h) The Supreme Court can issue following writs :
(a) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(b) Writ of Mandamus
(i) The highest criminal court is the court of the Session Judge.
(j) A Lok Adalat means “People’s Court”. It encourages the settlement of disputes through compromise between two parties.

Question 2.
(a) Mention any two economic factors responsible for the growth of nationalism in India. [2]
(b) Name the two Presidents under whom the first two sessions of the Indian National Congress were held. [2]
(c) Name the nationalist who said, ‘Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it’. State any one of his contributions to the National Movement. [2]
(d) State any two objectives of the Muslim League. [2]
(e) State any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930. [2]
(f) Name the last Viceroy of India. State any one of the provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947. [2]
(g) Give any two similarities between the ideologies of Nazism and Fascism. [2]
(h) Name the countries that formed the Axis Bloc, during World War II. [2]
(i) Give the full form of UNESCO. [2]
(j) State any two principles of ‘Panchsheel’ in the Non-Aligned Movement. [2]
Answers:
(a) (i) Poor condition of village economy .
(ii) Poor condition of Handicrafts.

(b) (i) 1st session was presided by W.C. Bannerjee.
(ii) 2nd session was presided by Dadabhai Naoroji.

(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
(i) Tilak was one of the most prominent leaders of the extremists who taught people to rely on their own strength. He instilled among the people love and pride for the country. He was an agitator and a fighter in the true sense of the term.
(ii) He also with Bipin Chandra and Lajpat Rai transformed the anti-partition movement into a movement for Swaraj.

(d) (i) To protect the political and other rights of the Muslims.
(ii) To promote among the Muslims of India feeling of loyalty to the British government.

(e) (i) The passing of‘Complete Independence’ or ‘Purna Su araj resolution at Lahore session, of the Congress.
(ii) Rejection of Gandhi’s ‘Eleven Point’ programme.

(f) Lord Mountbatten.
The states were given the right to choose joining either the Dominions or to retain their independence.

(g) The two main principles of Fascism and Nazism were :
(a) Fascism and Nazism were and totally against democracy. They laid stress on duties and obligations unlike democracy. They laid stress on rights and liberties of the people.
(b) Rule of single party and a single leader, with full authority.

(h) (i) Germany
(ii) Italy
(ii) Japan

(i) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

(j) The following were the two principles of Panchsheel:
(i) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity.
(ii) Non-aggression.
Non-Alignment is the international policy of a sovereign state according to which it does not align itself with any of the power blocks and at the same time actively participates in the world affairs to promote international peace, harmony and cooperation.

PART – II [50 MARKS]
SECTION – A
Attempt any two questions from this Section

Question 3.
With reference to the Union Parhament, answer the following questions :
(a) How many members may be nominated to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ?
Give one reason as to why they may be nominated to the Lok Sabha. [3]
(b) Mention any three qualifications required for a member to be elected to the Lok Sabha. [3]
(c) What is meant by the term ‘Session’? Name the three Sessions of the Union Parhament. [4]
Answers:
(a) Lok Sabha : Not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President, if, in his opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.
Rajya Sabha : The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.

(b) In order to be chosen as a member of the Lok Sabha, a person must:
(i) Be a citizen of India.
(ii) Be at least twenty five years of age.
(iii) Possess such other qualifications as may be fixed by a law of the Parliament. He must also be registered as a voter in any of the Parliamentary constituencies.

(c) It is the time period during which the House meets to conduct its business. Parliament should hold at least two sessions in a year.
Three sessions :

  1. Summer Session (Feb – May)
  2. Monsoon Session (July – Sept.)
  3. Winter Session (Nov – Dec.)

Question 4.
The President and the Vice-President are part of the Union Executive.
In this context, answer the following questions :
(a) State any three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice-President of India. [3]
(b) State the three functions of the Vice-President. [3]
(c) Explain briefly any tu o Legislative and any two Executive powers of the President. [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) He must be a citizen of India.
(ii) Must not be less than 35 years of age.
(iii) Must be qualified for election as member of the Rajya Sabha.

(b) He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(i) He regulates the debates and proceedings of this House.
(ii) He decides about the admissibility of a question or a resolution in the Rajya Sabha.
(iii) He decides about the serial order and time limit of speech of a member.

(c) Legislative powers :
1. The President summons the sessions of both the Houses of Parliament and prorogues them. He inaugurates the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections, at the beginning of the first session every year. He can also direct a joint session of both the Houses to be held in a certain situation.

2. The President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can do so on the advice of the Prime Minister, if this is done before the expiry of its full term. When the Lok Sabha completes its full term of five years, the President announces the dissolution of the Lok Sabha of his own. But he cannot dissolve the Rajya Sabha, because it is a permanent House.

Executive powers :
1. The President appoints the Prime Minister and on his advice, he appoints other Ministers in the Cabinet.

2. The President appoints high dignitaries such as the Attorney General of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the State Governors, Ambassadors and High Commissioners. He also appoints Chairmen and members of the Union Public Service Commission, Finance Commission, the Chief Election Commissioner and the two other members of the Election Commission.

Question 5.
Our Judicial system has a Supreme Court at its Apex, followed by the High Court and other Subordinate Courts. In the light of this statement, explain the following :
(a) Any three types of cases in which the Supreme Court exercises its Original Jurisdiction. [3]
(b) Any three ways by which the Constitution ensures the Independence of the Judiciary. [3]
(c) ‘Advisory’ and ‘Revisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [4]
Answers :
(a) Original Jurisdiction means the authority and power of the Supreme Court to hear a case in the first instance directly. The original and exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to the following cases :

  • Interpretation of the Constitution in case of a dispute between the Union Government and one or more States.
  • Interpretation of the Constitution in case of dispute between two or more States interests, relating to some justiciable right,
  • The Supreme Court has the exclusive jurisdiction to determine the Constitutional Validity of the Union laws. Such cases are debated by a majority of the full Constitutional Bench of seven Judges.

(b) The independence of Judiciary (Supreme Court) has been ensured in our country in the following ways .

  1. The judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice and such other judges he may deem necessary. This ensures their independence.
  2. The Judges possess high qualifications in law; they have a long experience in this field; they are eminent jurists. This ensures their independence.
  3. The removal of a judge, which is done through impeachment, has been made very difficult, Impeachment is done by the Parliament on the basis of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity”. This requires simple majority of the total strength of both the Houses of the Parliament, and a 2/3rd majority of those present and voting in both Houses to pass a resolution of impeachment,

(c) Advisory : The President may seek Supreme Court’s opinion or advice on a question of law or fact, which is of public importance in the opinion of the President, whether it has actually arisen or is likely to arise. The Supreme Court may give its opinion, after such hearing as it may think fit. It is done by a Bench of five Judges, by a majority vote. The opinion of the Supreme Court is pronounced in the open court. But the opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding on the President, as it is not a judicial decision or pronouncement. It is only a consultative view. It must be noted that the Supreme Court is also not bound to give its advisory opinion when a reference is made to it by the President. The Supreme Court can decline to give its opinion. Usually, its opinion is rejected by all courts and tribunals.

Revisory : Judicial Review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine laws passed by the independent and the executive orders of the Centre and State governments in order to find whether these are in accordance with the Constitution or not. This is called Judicial Review. If an order or a law’ is found to be contrary to the Constitution, the Supreme Court declares it null and void.

SECTION – B
Attempt any three questions from this Section

Question 6.
Numerous causes gave rise to the First War of Independence and its consequences led to several changes in the British Government in India. In this context, answer the following :
(a) Explain any three political causes of the Revolt of 1857. [3]
(b) Briefly explain the immediate cause of the Great Revolt. [3]
(c) State any four changes in the administration of the British Government as a consequence of the Revolt. [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) Lord Dalhousie’s policy of annexation and the Doctrine of Lapse made the Indian rulers angry and insecure. The prominent states which fell victim to the Doctrine w’ere : Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur.
(ii) Lord Canning declared that Bahadur Shah’s successor would not be allowed to use the imperial title, i.e. the ‘King’.
(iii) Lord Dalhousie stopped the pension of Nana Saheb.

(b) The immediate cause was the introduction of Enfield rifles. There was a rumour that, the cartridges to be used for the rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs. This sparked off the Mutiny. On 10th May, 1857 all the three sepoy regiments at Meerut rose in revolt.

(c) (i) End of Company’s Rule : The Revolt ended the East India Company’s rule in India and the Indian empire came under the direct control of the British Crown. Queen Victoria became the Empress of India.

(ii) Position of Secretary of State : The Act of 1858 abolished the Company’s Board of Control and the Court of Directors. All their powers were transferred to a Cabinet Minister, known as the Secretary of State. He was to be advised by a Council consisting of 15 members.

(iii) Position of Governor-General: The designation of the Governor-General was changed. He was designated as the Viceroy while representing the British government in England. It was his duty to run the Indian administration on behalf of the Crown. He was under the control of the Secretary of State for India.

(iv) Appointments to the Civil Service : It was decided that appointments to the Civil Service were to be made by open competition under rules made by the Secretary of State in Council.

Question 7.
The Quit India Resolution in 1942 was one of the final calls given by Gandhi for the British to leave India. Moving towards Independence, Lord Mountbatten’s Plan was significant. In this context, answer the following :
(a) State two reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement. [3]
(b) Give any three effects of the Quit India Movement launched by Gandhi in 1942 that was significant to the last phase of the National Movement of India. [3]
(c) Give any four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947. [4]
Answers:
(a) (i) Failure of the Cripps Mission : The failure of the Cripps Mission left no meeting ground between the Congress and the government. It was clear from the proposals that the government was not willing to grant independence in the near future. The Indians were also not happy at the proposals of Cripps Mission because proposals contained within them provisions which could divide India into hundreds of independent provinces.

(ii) War Situation : There was every possibility that India might be attacked by Japan and the Indians were’ helpless because they had no power or means to resist the attack. So, the Indian leaders felt that the situation called for complete independence. Gandhiji also felt that an orderly and peaceful withdrawal of the British could save India from internal anarchy and external aggression.

(b) (i) It demonstrated the depth of the national feelings : The movement showed the depth of the national will and convinced the Britishers that the days of their domination in India were numbered. People from all parts of India fought together against the Britishers.

(ii) Set back to the Britishers : Now the British officials had realized that the British would not be able to retain their hold on India.

(iii) Parallel Government : A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of parallel governments in Ballia in Uttar Pradesh, Midnapur in Bengal and Satara in Maharashtra.

(c) (i) Division of the Country : The country would be divided into two Dominions i.e, India and Pakistan.

(ii) The Constituent Assembly : The existing Constituent Assembly would continue to work, but the Constitution framed by it would not be applied to Pakistan. A separate Constituent Assembly would be constituted for those parts which decided in favour of partition.

(iii) The Princely States : The Princely States would be free to choose their own option, and treaties signed with them would soon come to an end.
(iv) A Boundary Commission : A Boundary Commission would be set up to decide about the boundary disputes.

Question 8.
Study the picture given below and answer the following questions :
ICSE History and Civics Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 10 1
(a) Identify the leader given in the picture. [3]
Name the Political party and the Military Organisation that he formed.
(b) State any three objectives of the Political party that he founded. [3]
(c) Mention any four objectives of the Military Organisation that he formed. [4]
Answers :
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose.
Forward Bloc and Indian National Army (INA).

(b) (i) To develop the economy on socialistic ideas.
(ii) Abolition of landlordism i.e., Zamindari System.
(iii) A new monetary and credit system.

(c) (i) The basic aim of the INA was to overthrow the British Raj in colonial India.
(ii) To establish Provisional Government of Free India.
(iii) To take help from Japan Japanese Army and heist Indian flag on Indian soil by overthrowing the British Raj.
(iv) To expand and strengthen Indian Independence league.

Question 9.
With reference to the Two Major World Wars in the 20th century, answer the following questions :
(a) Explain briefly the causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism. [3]
(b) Explain briefly the territorial rearrangements as a result of World War I. [3]
(c) State any four causes that led to the Second World War. [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) Europe divided into Power Blocs : The major European nations were divided into Blocs. Germany, Austrian-Hungary and Italy formed Triple Alliance in 1882 AD and Britain, Russia and France formed Triple Entente in 1907. This also caused tension between their relations.

(ii) Militant Nationalism and Mutual Rivalries : Nationalism in the 19th century had become competitive and aggressive. Love for one’s nation meant hatred towards other nations. The whole atmosphere was charged with narrow militant, atmosphere and inter-state rivalries.

(iii) Clash of Imperialist Interests and Colonial Rivalry : There were small wars between France and Italy over occupation of Tunis ; between Britain and Russia over Persia etc. These wars resulted in two blocs in Europe : Britain, France and Russia on one side and Germany, Austria and Turkey on the other.

(b) 1. (i) Many small states like Poland, Finland, Latavia etc. were created.
(ii) The German territory to the West of Rhine Valley was to be occupied by the Allied Troops for 15 years.
(iii) Germany w as to return Alsac and Lorane to France.
(iv) She was to hand over Eupen and Malmedy to Belgium.
(v) She also had to give Scheleswig to Denmark.
(vi) The German city of Danzing was made a free port in the Polish territory.

2. (i) Britain and France divided and shared the regions of Togo and the Cameroons (South East Africa).
(ii) German colonies in East Africa and South-West Africa were shared between England, Belgium, Portugal and South Africa.
(iii) Japan was given Shantung and Kiau-Chow in China.
(iv) New Zealand was given Samoa Island.

(c) (i) Failure of democracies in Europe and the rise of dictatorships in Germany, Italy, Russia, Spain, Portugal, etc.
(ii) Reaction against the unjust and humiliating Treaty of Versailles.
(iii) Aggressive National and Expansionist pohcy of Italy, Germany, Soviet Russia and Japan.
(iv) The armament race and the manufacture of deadly weapons of mass destruction.

Question 10.
With reference to the United Nations and its Specialized Agencies, answer the following :
(a) Mention any three functions of the International Court of Justice. [3]
(b) State the composition of the General Assembly. [3]
(c) State any two functions of the UNICEF and any two functions of WHO. [4]
Answers :
(a) (i) (a) It is composed of 15 judges elected for a 9-year term.
(b) The judges are elected by both Security Council and General Assembly by a majority vote.
(c) To maintain the continuity, one-third of the court i.e. five judges, are elected every three years.
(d) The court elects its President and Vice-President for three years. It also has power to appoint its Registrar.

(ii) (a) To settle disputes between member states by the United Nations in accordance with the International Law.
(b) It can also advise the General Assembly or the Security Council on any legal question.
(c) Other organs or agencies of the UNO may also request the advisory opinion on legal questions.
(b) The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations. Every member state can send a maximum of five representatives to the General Assembly but at the time of voting a state is entitled to cast only one vote. It means that all member states have equal status.

(c) Functions of UNICEF :

  1. Provision of Food : It helps in providing protective food like milk, meat, fish and fats to the children and pregnant women.
  2. Health Services : UNICEF provides funds for the training of health and sanitation workers. It supphes medical equipment to rural health-centres. It makes effort to prevent diseases like T.B., malaria etc.

Functions of WHO :

  1. Research Work: The WHO promotes and coordinates research in the field of health by financing research projects in many countries. Its research activities include nutritious food, environmental safety, mental health, control of specific diseases like cancer, heart-attack etc.
  2. Standardisation of Medicines : It sets international standards with respect to biological and pharmaceutical products. It also provides essential drugs to developing countries.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Previous Years Question Papers