ICSE Geography Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Geography Previous year Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately,
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper,
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt seven questions in all.
• Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
• A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II,
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
• To be supplied with this Paper: Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 and 20 cm of twine.

NOTE:

1. In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
2. The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 must not be taken out of the examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on completion of the paper.
3. The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached, and after marking, must be fastened to your answer booklet.
4. All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial order.
5. All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is used to answer the rest of the paper.

Part-I [30 Marks ]
(Attempt all questions from this part)

Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:

(a) 1. Give the six figure grid reference for the temple that is located to the south west of Pithapura settlement. [2]
2. Give the four-figure grid reference for a settlement where people of the region meet socially and for trade at least once in a year.
Answer:

1. 201215
2. 1622 settlement, 1520

(b) 1. What is the pattern of drainage seen in the grid square 2118? [2]
2. What is the pattern of settlement seen in the grid square 1923?
Answer:

1. Radial
2. Nucleated or compact settlement

(c) What do each of the two numbers (281 printed in black colour and 20 printed in red colour) in the grid square 1818 indicate? [2]
Answer:
281 is the height of the land whereas 20 is distance stone of the road.

(d) 1. Name any two man-made features in grid square 2419. [2]
2. Name any two natural features in grid square 2118.
Answer:

1. Houses / Huts, cart track
2. Rivers streams, Hills

(e) What is the significance of the following? [2]

1. Fire line in grid square 2417.
2. Water body found in grid square 2221.

Answer:

1. It is wide path filled with water or sand to prevent forest fire.
2. This is river with embankments to save the land from flooding.

(f) Calculate the area of the region between 16 and 19 Eastings and 18 and 22 Northings. Give your answer in kilometre square. [2]
Answer:
Number of squares – 20
1: 50,000
Scale used 2 cm = 1 km
Area = 20 cm = 10 km²

(g) Give a reason for each of the following: [2]

1. The water in some of the wells in the north west quarter of the map is not fit for drinking.
2. The region near Anadra and Gulabganj has many causeways.

Answer:

1. Due to presence of brackish wells and water bodies marked in grid 1621.
2. Causeway is a metalled raised road across a minor stream. A number of causeways are built in these regions is due to presence of numerous minor streams.

(h) 1. What is the main means of irrigation used by people living in the area shown on the map? [2]
2.  What is the main occupation of the people of the region shown on the map?
Answer:

1. Sipu nadi as many canal have been built from this along with number of distributing.
2. Presence of cart track, park shows dependence infront. So they are involved in forest based occupations.

(i) Which according to you is the most important settlement? [2]
Answer:
Pamgera 1622 presence of PS, PO compact settlement with annual fair.

(j) Name any two means of transport used by the people living in the area shown on the map extract. [2]
Answer:
Cart track, Metalled road, footpath.

Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Shade and label the Gangetic Plain. [1]
(b) Shade and label an area of laterite soil in North India. [1]
(c) Mark and label the Karakoram Mountains. [1]
(d) Mark and name the Palk Strait. [1]
(e) Shade and label the river Cauveri. [1]
(f) Mark and name Mumbai.  [1]
(g) Mark and name the Nathu La Pass. [1]
(h) Mark and name Digboi. [1]
(0 Shade and name the Deccan Plateau. [1]
(j) Shade and label the river Jhelum. [1]
Answer:

Part II [50 Marks]
(Attempt any five questions from this part)

Question 3.
(a) 1. What type of wind is ‘Monsoon? What is its direction during summer? [2]
2. Mention two characteristics of the Indian monsoon.
Answer:

1. Periodic, Wind
2. Seasonal reversal of winds.
   Hot and humid summer whereas cold and dry winter.

(b) With reference to the summer season in India, answer the following questions : [2]

1. Mention the duration of the summer season in India.
2. What is the atmospheric pressure condition during summer season over the central part of India ?

Answer:

1. March to May
2. High atmospheric pressure

(c) Give a reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Goa receives heavier rainfall than Puducherry.
2. Mawsynram receives the highest average annual rainfall.
3. Mangaluru is cooler than Delhi in summer season.

Answer:
1. Because Goa is in the windward side of Western Ghats whereas Puducherry is in the Eastern Ghats.

2. Mawsynram lies in the Khasi Hills in Meghalaya and gets heavy rainfall from the Bay of Bengal branch of the summer monsoon. Here the hills are funnel shaped so the moisture laiden monsoons have to take a sudden rise which cause heavy rain.

3. Mangaluru is cooler due to moderating effect of sea whereas Delhi is in the interior of the Indian sub-continent.

(d) Study the data of distribution of temperature and rain for Station X and answer the questions that follow : [3]

1. Is Station X in the coastal area or in the interior of the country?
2. Calculate the total annual rainfall for Station X.
3. Name the wind that brings most of the rainfall to Station X.

Answer:

1. As temperature range is very high so station X is in the interior of the country.
2. Annual rainfall = 2 + 1+0+5 + 15 + 62+71 + 81 + 59+12+10+3 = 321cm
3. South-west monsoon

Question 4.
(a) 1. Name the Indian soil which is formed due to the weathering of basic igneous rocks. [2]
2. Name two states of India where this type of soil is found.
Answer:

1. Black soil
2. Maharashtra and Gujarat

(b) Name the following : [2]

1. An important transported soil of India.
2. Soil that is rich in iron oxide.

Answer:

1. Alluvial soil
2. Red soil

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Terrace farming is an ideal soil conservation method for hilly regions.
2. Dry farming is preferred in areas with red soil.
3. Wind is a common agent of soil erosion in arid regions.

Answer:
1. Because hill slope is cut into a number of terraces having horizontal top and steep slopes on the back and front. So the terrace farming is an ideal soil conservation method for hilly regions.

2. Because it does not require much moisture.

3. Due to low rainfall, wind can lift the valuable top soil from one area and deposits in another area. So that wind is a common agent of soil.

(d) Briefly answer the following : [3]

1. Mention one way in which man is responsible for soil erosion.
2. How can deepening of the river bed help in preventing soil erosion?
3. Mention a physical characteristic of Laterite soil.

Answer:

1. Deforestation
2. Deepening of the river bed will prevent floods and ultimately shore and stream bank erosion.
3. The soils an indefinitely durable so they provide valuable building material.

Question 5.
(a) Give two reasons to explain as to why we need to conserve our forest resource. [2]
Answer:

• Forests provide many major and minor products like wood, gum, fibre, fruits etc.
• They play a significant role in the prevention and control of soil erosion.

(b) 1. Mention two conditions required for the growth of Littoral Forest. [2]
2. State one characteristic feature of the forest found in the Nilgiri Hills.
Answer:

1. Forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal forests.
   Trees can survive both fresh as well as brackish water.
2. Nilgri region receives rainfall of 150 to 180 cm so moist deciduous forests dominate the region. Trees shed their leaves during the dry season.

(c) Give two reasons to explain as to why the Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purpose. [3]
2.  Name any two trees found in Tropical Evergreen forests.
Answer:

1. They are very dense.
   Transport is not possible.
2. Ebony and Mahogany

(d) Briefly explain each of the following: [3]

1. The trees in the Tropical Desert Forest have-stunted growth.
2. There is a gradual increase in the forest cover in India in recent times.
3. The. trees in Monsoon Deciduous forests, shed their leaves for about 6-8 weeks during March and April.

Answer:

1. To minimize loss of water. Lack of water and minerals in the soil.
2. This is due to promotion of Social Forestry.
3. This is due to longer dry season.

Question 6.
(a) “The modem means of irrigation are gaining popularity.” Give two reasons to justify this statement. [2]
Answer:

1. Fertilizer and nutrient loss is minimised.
2. Loss of water is minimum.

(b) Mention two factors that favour the development of tube well irrigation in Punjab. [2]
Answer:

1. They are reliable source of irrigation.
2. They can be easily dug.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Most of the South Indian states are not suitable for development of canal irrigation.
2. There is an urgent need for water conservation in India.
3. Development of irrigation is essential for the growth of the agriculture sector of India.

Answer:

1. The South Indian region being rocky is difficult to dig.
   Most of the South Indian rivers are non perennial.
2. Water is basic input in agriculture. So conservation of water is must for food security.
3. Rainfall in India is very uncertain, which increases the element of risk and makes crop production rather difficult.

(d) Briefly explain the following terms : [3]

1. Inundation canal,
2. Rooftop rainwater harvesting.
3. Surface water.

Answer:
1.Inundation canal: The canals which are drawn directly from the rivers without making any kind of barrage or dam at their head to regulate the flow of the river and canal.

2. Rooftop rainwater harvesting: It is a technique through which rainwater is captured from the roof catchments and stored in reservoirs.

3. Surface water: Water that is on the earth’s surface such as streams, rivers, lakes or reservoir, etc.

Question 7.
(a) Give two advantages of using bio – gas as a source of power. [2]
Answer:

• It does not cause any pollution.
• It is a cheap source of energy.

(b) Name the following : [2]

1. A metallic mineral for which the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh is famous.
2. The multi-purpose project based on the River Sutlej.

Answer:

1. Manganese
2. Bhakhra Nangal Project

(c) Give a reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Odisha has benefitted greatly from the Hirakud project.
2. Copper is used to make electric wires.
3. India’s location is advantageous for the generation of solar power.

Answer:

1. Because it provides the required power to various mines and exploitation units.
2. Because it is a good conductor of electricity.
3. Because India being a tropical country, is well endowed with plenty of solar energy. Most parts of the country have bright sunshine throughout the year except a brief monsoon period.

(d) Briefly answer the following: [3]

1. Name a mineral used to generate nuclear power.
2. Why is petroleum often referred to as “liquid gold”?
3. State one disadvantage of using coal as a source of power.

Answer:

1. Uranium
2. Due to its high utility as a source of energy and as a raw material for a large number of industries.
3. Burning coal emits harmful wastes such as carbon dioxide, sulphuric acid, ash etc.

Question 8.
(a) Mention two steps taken by the government to boost agricultural production in India. [2]
Answer:

• Launching of irrigation schemes: Many multipurpose projects have been constructed to provide power and irrigation facilities to the farmers.
• HYV seeds and Agriculture Universities: In order to enhance production, government is providing HYV seeds to the farmers. Special seminars are also being held. Many new Agriculture Universities have been established.

(b) 1. Name two varieties of millet grown in India. [2]
2. What is the soil requirement for growing millet?
Answer:

1. Jowar, Bajra
2. Red and sandy soil

(c) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow : [3]

1. Mention the climatic condition that is suitable for the cultivation of this crop.
2. Name the state that produces the largest amount of this crop.
3. In which cropping season is this crop grown in India?

Answer:

1. (a) 21 °C to 27 °C temperature is required for growing cotton which is found in Gujarat.
   (b) Well distributed rain ranging between 50 cm to 80 cm is required which is available in Gujarat.
2. Gujarat
3. In Punjab and Haryana = April – May Tamil Nadu = Both Kharif and Rabi

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Cultivation of wheat is confined to the northern part of India.
2. Practicing mixed farming gives security to farmers.
3.  Ratoon cropping is gaining popularity among sugarcane cultivators.

Answer:

1. Because it is a temperate crop, so it is cultivated in winter. It is grown in northern parts of India and in areas where the temperature does not rise beyond 10°C to 15°C in winter.
2. Because in this type of farming cultivation of crops and rearing of livestock is done simultaneously.
3. Because ratoon matures earlier and cost of production is also less.

Question 9.
(a) Where do the following iron and steel plants get their supply of iron ore from? [2]

1. Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant
2. Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant.

Answer:

1. Durg district of Chhattisgarh
2. Bailadila

(b) ‘Karnataka has developed as an important state for the growth of the Silk industry. ’ Give two reasons to justify the statement. [2]
Answer:

• It enjoys favourable climatic conditions for rearing the silkworms.
• Karnataka is the hub of skilled workers which are required for production of silk.

(c) With reference to sugar industries answer the following questions : [3]

1. Why should these industries be located close to the sugarcane growing areas?
2. Name two by-products of the sugar industry.
3. Mention one leading sugar producing state in North India and one in South India.

Answer:

1. Because the sucrose content of the sugarcane starts decreasing within 24 hours of harvesting.
2. Bagasse, Molasses
3. North India – Uttar Pradesh, South India – Maharashtra

(d) Give a reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Ahmedabad is an important cotton textile producing centre in India.
2. Cottage industries are significant for our economy
3. Petrochemical industries are usually located close to the oil refineries.

Answer:

1. Because Ahmedabad lies near cotton belt of India and there is no problem of cheap and quality raw material.
2. They need less capital so they suits our economy.
3. Because they get their raw material from oil refineries.

Question 10.
(a) “Roadways are an important means of transport in India”. Give two reasons to justify the statement. [2]
Answer:

• Roads require less investment as compared to railway.
• These can be built at higher altitudes and at any place.

(b) 1. Why are South Indian rivers not ideal for the inland water transport? [2]
2.  Mention one advantage of coastal shipping.
Answer:

1. Because rivers of Southern India are non-perennial.
   They flow swiftly over the plateaus and highlands.
2. It is environment -friendly.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Nearly seventy percent of Indians do not use air transport.
2. A well-developed transport network is important for industrial growth.
3. Water transport is not as popular as land transport in India.

Answer:

1. Because it is the costliest mode of transport.
2. Transport network helps in expansion of market.
3. Water transport as a whole is much slower than its road, rails or air competitors.
   It provides access to limited areas.

(d) 1. “The railway is an important means of transport as compared to airways.”
State two reasons to support the statement. [3]
2. Mention one disadvantage of rail transport.
Answer:

1. Railway is a cheap mode of transportation.
2. It can be used to transport heavy and building material whereas airways is more suitable for light material.
   It cannot provide door to door service.

Question 11.
(a) What impact does the waste accumulation have on the following? [2]

1. Quality of air around us.
2. Quality of water around us.

Answer:

1. Waste lowers the quality of air around us. Solid waste releases methane and other harmful gases.
2. Toxic waste has direct effect on marine life and affects the human beings indirectly. When the harmful toxic waste is dumped into the ocean, the fishes could consume the poisonous chemicals. When the fish is eaten by humans, this could lead to food poisoning.

(b) Mention two ways in which the decomposition of waste in open areas can affect human health. [2]
Answer:

• Rodents, insects and other vermin attracted to open dump sites may pose health risks. Dump sites with scrap tires provide an ideal breeding ground for mosquitoes, which can multiply 100 times faster than normal in the warm stagnant water.
• If solid waste is burnt it may release harmful gases which can harm the health of nearby people.

(c) 1. What can an individual do to reduce waste at home? [3]
2. Why must segregation of waste be done before disposal?
3. How has composting proven to be a great help in managing waste?
Answer:

1. Reducing the use of harmful articles which are non-biodegradable like polybags and replacing them with cloth bags.
2. Waste segregation is important because under this waste is segregated into different categories like biodegradable and non-biodegradable. It increases recycling process.
3. Compost is a way of recycling and reuse of organic waste.

(d) Give a reason for each of the following : [3]

1. Trees must be planted in the industrial area.
2. Chemical fertilizers must be replaced by organic manure.
3. Plastic and polythene products must be banned.

Answer:

1. Trees absorb carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.
2. The organic fertilizer can be used instead of chemical fertilizers and is better specially when used for vegetables. It increases the soil’s ability to hold water and makes the soil easier to cultivate.
3. Because these are non-biodegradable waste that contain the material which does not breakdown or decompose in the soil.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Years Question Papers